Final Assessment Exam
1. A document called ____________ is created by decomposing the project scope into smaller, more manageable elements.
A. Scope Statement
B. Network Logic Diagram
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Requested Change
2. Activity duration estimates are best prepared by:
A. The team members who would do the actual work
B. The project manager, to ensure the schedule is met
C. The functional manager because they understand the work
D. The project team
3. Which of the following provides a statistical forecast of the final EAC assuming that all remaining work will be done at the budgeted rate?
A. [(BAC - EV) / (CPI x SPI)] + actual to date = EAC
B. [(BAC + EV) / (CPI x SPI)] + actual to date = EAC
C. [(ETC) / (CPI x SPI)] + actual to date = EAC
D. (BAC - EV) + actual to date = EAC
4. While reviewing a project network diagram, you note that an activity has Early Start time = 1 day and Late start time = 4 days. What is the float for this activity?
A. +3 days
B. - 3 days
C. 75%
D. Zero, because activity on critical path have zero slack
5. This of the following is generally not regarded as an element of active listening:
A. Paraphrasing
B. Making eye contact
C. Interpreting the information
D. Interrupting to ask questions
6. You are the project manager in a company where you have maximum authority. To which organizational structure does your company belong?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
7. Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which of the following Activity Sequencing techniques:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Schedule Network Templates
8. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Sequence Activities process:
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Activity Attributes
C. Activity List
D. Change Requests
9. In a kick-off meeting for your project, you provided information to your team members about the different process groups to be followed in the project. According to PMI, which are the project management process groups
A. Conceptualizing, Initiating, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
C. Initiating, Verifying, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling, and Administrative Closure
10. You are working in the Project Management Office (PMO) of your organization. Your job responsibility is to:
A. Manage the operational activities in the company
B. Manage human resource and risk management issues for individual projects
C. Provide support functions to project managers in the form of training, providing software, standardizing policies, etc.
D. Provide subject matter expertise in the functional areas of the project
11. Which of the following is a technique for Sequence Activities:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Rolling Wave Planning
D. Mandatory Dependencies
12. Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Define Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
13. A project manager spent some days to create a multi-page document which he called Project charter. The document should have been issued by the project sponsor. The sponsor found the document outsized and asked for a condensed document.
Which of the following is not normally an element of the Project charter?
A. The authority level of the project manager
B. Detailed control account and work package descriptions
C. The business need that the project was undertaken to address
D. High-level risks
14. During a project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following numbers: EV: 523,000; PV: 623,000; AC: 643,000.
Which results are correct?
A. CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000
B. CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000
C. CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000
D. CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000
15. If budget at completion = $ 500, estimate to complete = $400, earned value= $100, and actual cost = $200, what is the estimate at complete?
A. $0
B. $150
C. $350
D. $600
16. Which of the following process sequence is correct?
A. Create WBS, Determine Budget, Estimate Cost
B. Create WBS, Estimate Cost, Determine Budget
C. Determine Budget, Estimate Cost, Create WBS
D. Estimate Cost, Budget Cost, Create WBS
17. Which of the following tools is used to create a Risk Management Plan?
A. Risk planning meetings
B. Documentation reviews
C. Data precision rankings
D. Diagramming techniques
18. Resource Leveling is a technique to:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
19. Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
20. Which of the following statements describes best the relationship of quality and grade?
A. Low grade is always a problem; low quality may be overcome by a good rework and repair process.
B. Grade is a category or rank given to entities having different functional requirements but the same need for quality.
C. Both quality and grade can often be improved through intelligent measuring, testing and examining.
D. Low quality is always a problem as it bears on the ability of an item to meet requirements; low grade may sometimes be acceptable.
21. Network templates which contain only portions of a network are often referred to as
A. Subnetworks or fragment networks
B. Subprojects
C. Programs
D. WBS items
22. Following can be BEST described as a kind of dependency that can create arbitrary float values and limit scheduling options:
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. Start-to-Finish dependency
D. External dependency
23. Critical path method is used in which of the following processes:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Durations
24. What is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of a project?
A. The time period needed to pay back the investment from a project when future income is discounted.
B. The inherent discount rate or investment yield rate produced by the project over a pre-defined period of time.
C. The rate of negative risk that can be accepted for a project without turning the Expected net present value negative.
D. The expected benefit from a project’s deliverable calculated as a percentage of the original investment over a specified time period.
25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?
A. Constrained by limited resources
B. Planned, executed, and controlled
C. Creates a unique product or service
D. Ongoing and repetitive
26. Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is BEST done during which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Duration
27. You have reached the end of the design phase of your project. You decide to call a "phase end review" for obtaining authorization to close the design phase and initiate the next phase (i.e., execution phase) of your project. Your manager disagrees with your suggestion. He wants a "kill point" to formally end the design phase of the project. In this context, you should:
A. Disagree with your manager because you know that phase end reviews should be used at the end of each phase of the project
B. Agree with your manager
C. Escalate this issue to the project sponsor
D. Take advice from a senior project manager about what should actually be done at the end of each phase of the project
28. Which statement describes best the meaning of the term Cost baseline?
A. A cost baseline is always created by translating time-phased cost information into cost data on activity or work-package level.
B. A cost baseline is an approved time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project.
C. Data to draw a cost baseline can be easily generated and updated as necessary from information related to actual project cost.
D. A cost baseline is usually displayed in the form of an inverse S-curve drawn from the beginning of the project until data date.
29. Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which Project Scheduling technique:
A. Critical Path Method
B. Schedule Compression
C. What-if Analysis
D. Resource Leveling
30. Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is MOST likely to give rise to which of the following dependencies:
A. Finish-to-Start dependency
B. Soft Logic
C. Mandatory dependency
D. External dependency
31. The receiver filters messages based on all but the following:
A. Culture
B. Semantics
C. Language
D. Distance
32. The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of:
A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Encrypting
D. Promoting
33. Which of the following exhibits greatest resistance to change?
A. Business Requirements
B. Technology
C. People
D. Environment
34. Matrix organizations exhibit features of both projectized and functional organizations. In a weak matrix organization, the role of a project manager may be that of a:
A. Coordinator
B. Manager with considerable authority
C. Support person
D. Functional manager
35. Reserve Analysis involves:
A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
B. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
D. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
36. Which of the following is not true for Resource Leveling:
A. Project schedule is build with resource buffers to prevent schedule slippage
B. Project’s Critical path may be altered
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
37. Lessons Learned can be documented:
A. At the end of project closing
B. During the project lifecycle and at the end
C. When there is time available
D. At the end of all project phases
38. Perform ______________ is the process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
A. Quality Control
B. Quality planning
C. Quality Assurance
D. Process Control
39. These are Cost of Conformance in Quality, except
A. Training
B. Processes
C. Testing and Inspection
D. Warranty
40. With your team you are using judgment from subject matter experts to identify and analyze project risks. There is a small number of experts available, but they have been in a teacher-student or manager-team member relationship. Which of the following techniques can ensure best that there is no dominating opinion?
A. Peer review
B. SWOT analysis
C. Delphi technique
D. Monetary value calculation
41. The concept of zero inventory is called:
A. Six sigma
B. Continuous improvement
C. Just in Time
D. Zero defects
42. What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?
A. To show task dependencies.
B. To show resource constraints.
C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.
D. To highlight the critical path.
43. You are in Perform Quality Assurance process in your project. Which technique would you use?
A. Quality Audit
B. Code review
C. Scope verification
D. Inspection
44. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost contracts are more desirable for the:
A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
D. Contractor
E. C or D
45. You leave a voice mail for the team lead for the quality team. This is an example of:
A. Formal verbal
B. Informal verbal
C. Formal written
D. Informal written
46. The project you are managing has 6 stakeholders. How many channels of communications are there between these stakeholders?
A. 14
B. 16
C. 15
D. 18
47. Which communication process is part of Monitoring and controlling process group?
A. Control Communication
B. Manage stakeholder engagement
C. Manage Communication
D. Plan communication
48. A stakeholder with _____ power and ____ interest must be kept informed of your project’s progress
A. high, high
B. low, low
C. high, low
D. low, high
49. In your organization, all big technical projects go through Initiate, Analyze, Design, Implement, Test, and Closeout. In this context, a project life cycle:
A. Defines the product life cycle
B. Defines the project phases
C. Contains several product life cycles
D. Has deliverables that must be completed before work starts on the next phase
50. _____________________ is a statistical method that helps identify which factors might influence specific variables
A. CPM
B. Design of Experiments
C. Statistical sampling
D. Benchmarking
51. ____________ is created by decomposing the project scope into smaller, more manageable elements.
A. Scope Statement
B. Network Logic Diagram
C. Requested Change
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
52. As a Project Manager for a construction company, you are responsible to Define Scope, Define Activities, Develop Schedule, and Estimate Budget. These responsibilities are performed as part of:
A. Closing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
53. The project manager is in charge of all the following aspects of the project EXCEPT:
A. Keep the project on track in terms of schedule and budget
B. Identify, monitor, and respond to risk
C. Provide accurate and timely report of project metrics
D. Ensure integrity of project team members
54. What are the various cost types in quality management?
A. Planning costs, doing costs, checking costs
B. Planning costs, assurance costs, control costs
C. Costs of good quality, costs of bad quality
D. Prevention costs, appraisal costs, failure costs
55. You schedule a kick-off meeting two weeks in advance, along with the agenda of the meeting. Now, just 2-3 days before the meeting few team members decline the meeting request, but they will be joining when the project work starts.
A. You should insist on team members joining the meeting on the planned date
B. It is probably a good idea to re-schedule the meeting
C. You should force the team members to join the meeting
D. The kick-off meeting is secondary. You would publish the Minutes of the Meeting any way
56. During project execution, you find out the team members are not delivering the work in right order and right time. This is leading to problems in the deliverables of other team members. What tool is the used to solve the above issues?
A. RACI Chart
B. Work Authorization System
C. Communication management plan
D. Staffing plan
57. Which of the following has most risk for the buyer?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
C. Time and Material (T&M)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
58. You are using Qualified Sellers List. Which process of procurement are you in?
A. Plan procurements
B. Administer procurements
C. Conduct procurements
D. Close procurements
59. Scope baseline includes:
A. Various management plans of the project
B. WBS, WBS dictionary, and scope statement
C. Schedule baseline and cost baseline
D. Statement of work and Contract
60. The _______________ is a document which describes how the project management team will implement the organization’s quality policy
A. Quality assurance plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Quality audit plan
D. Quality control plan
61. Which are the five kinds of power?
A. Legitimate, expert, reward, punishment, and referent
B. Legitimate, expert, reward, political, and referent
C. Legitimate, expert, reward, punishment, and political
D. Legitimate, expert, reward, political, and economic
62. Your project stakeholder has asked you to create a financial plan for your project. Preparing a financial plan will require:
A. Program management skills
B. Industry specific skills
C. Financial subject matter expertise
D. Both project management and industry specific skills
63. You found the following Earned Value Analysis information for a recently closed out project: SPI = 0.6, CPI = 1.0
A. The project has been cancelled while it was executed. At that time the project was behind schedule and on budget.
B. The project has been cancelled while it was executed. At that time the project was ahead of schedule but on budget.
C. The project's deliverables have all been finished. At that time the project was on schedule but over budget.
D. The project's deliverables have all been finished. At that time the project was behind schedule but on budget.
64. You are planning for your project. In this context, which of the following processes should you consider?
A. Define Scope, Develop Schedule, Plan Risk Management, Plan Communications
B. Plan Quality, Plan Procurements, Plan Risk Responses, Control Costs
C. Perform Quality Assurance, Develop Project Team, Distribute Information, Plan Risk Management
D. Verify Scope, Perform Quality Control, Control Schedule, Control Costs
65. Your company CEO wants to set up a project management office (PMO) in the company. You have been assigned the responsibility to define the scope of work for the PMO. You are aware that ideally a PMO can facilitate all the following EXCEPT:
A. Help manage shared resources
B. Bring order and organize communications across projects
C. Provide support functions like training and mentoring
D. Define specific strategic business objectives
66. Which of the following statement is most true?
A. Creating WBS can enhances team buy-in
B. Creating WBS identifies key risks
C. Creating WBS results in compressed project schedule
D. Creating WBS identifies activities on critical path
67. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Procurement Management
C. Project Configuration Management
D. Project Communications Management
68. Cost estimating tools include:
A. Analogous estimating, bottom-up estimating, activity duration estimating
B. Analogous estimating, bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating, estimating publications
D. Bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating, chart of accounts
69. During a project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following numbers: EV: 62,500; PV: 72,500; AC: 74,500.
Which results are correct?
A. CV: -12,000; SV: -10,000
B. CV: +12,000; SV: +10,000
C. CV: +10,000; SV: +12,000
D. CV: -10,000; SV: -12,000
70. As a project manager, you have identified the stakeholders of your project. What should you do NEXT?
A. Update Project Charter
B. Create Project Management Plan
C. Create Communications Management Plan
D. Create Stakeholder Register
71. You are the project manager in a company, which has a balanced matrix organizational structure. Who do you report to?
A. Functional Manager
B. Program Manager
C. Manager of Project Managers
D. Portfolio Sponsor
72. Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
C. Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
73. The lowest level elements in a WBS are often called:
A. Work authorization packages
B. Decompositions
C. Work packages
D. Work package templates
74. You are the project manager for a software company and outsourcing part of the work. You are paying $ 25 per hour for an employee and $ 200 per month as overhead. The type of contract is:
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
C. Time and Material (T&M)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
75. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed is called:
A. Quality Policy
B. Check list
C. Trend analysis
D. Pareto diagram
76. WBS major deliverables should be subdivided till the level where
A. The use of quality control charts can be considered
B. Components can be estimated for cost, time and acceptance criteria
C. The components can be completed by one person
D. Lowest level components do not fall on critical path
77. Perform _______________ is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
A. Quality Control
B. Quality planning
C. Quality Assurance
D. Process Control
78. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is called:
A. CPM
B. Bar Chart
C. Network diagram
D. Flowchart
79. As a project manager, you are responsible for meeting the project schedule deadlines. If there is some delay in the project schedule, you should (choose the most appropriate answer):
A. Increase the timeline for the project.
B. Fast track or crash the project, and let the management know the impact of this action.
C. Ask the resources to work overtime to meet the project deadlines.
D. Change the project scope.
80. In evaluating contracts there are a number of components that make a contract enforceable. All of the following items are needed to make a contract legal except_____.
A. An offer
B. Legal purpose
C. Negotiation
D. Consideration
81. The Project Manager is evaluating data from a control chart and discovers nine consecutive data points on one side of the control chart. This is called what?
A. Too tight of control limits
B. A violation of the Seven Run Rule
C. Too loose of specification limits
D. Acceptable measurements
82. Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories?
A. Mitigation
B. Acceptance
C. Avoidance
D. Analysis
83. The Project charter contains all the following, except:
A. The authority level of the project manager
B. The business need that the project was undertaken to address
C. High-level risks
D. Detailed control account and work package descriptions
84. When should risk identification be performed?
A. During Planning Phase
B. During Execution Phase
C. During Initiation Phase
D. Risk identification should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project
85. Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
A. Unknown unknowns
B. Known unknowns
C. business risks
D. pure risks
86. A ROM estimate should be accurate to what degree:
A. -10%, +25%
B. -50%, +50%
C. -5%, + 10%
D. -50, +100%
87. The cost baseline is:
A. A formal document that documents how EVM will be measured and report performance
B. A time-phased budget, used to monitor and measure project cost performance
C. A time-phased budget, used as a supporting document to justify activity cost estimates
D. A formal document that shows how to project cost variances will be managed
88. The inputs to cost budgeting include all, except:
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Cost performance baseline
C. Scope baseline
D. Project schedule
89. Which of the following becomes increasingly important in a virtual team environment?
A. Requirements engineering
B. Communication planning
C. Formal procurements closure
D. Network diagramming
90. Assuming a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean?
A. 68%
B. 99.74%
C. 95%
D. 75%
91. The project has a SPI of 1.19. This implies:
A. The project is under budget by 19%
B. The project is over budget by 19%
C. The project is progressing at 81% rate of the originally planned
D. The project is progressing at 119% rate of the originally planned
92. The project has a CV of - $50,000. This implies:
A. The project is under budget by $50,000
B. The project is over budget by $50,000
C. The project is behind schedule
D. The project is ahead of schedule
93. Monika is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing. PV=200, EV=175, AC=150. What is the cost variance?
A. 25
B. -25
C. 50
D. -50
94. Monika is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing. PV=200, EV=175, AC=150. What is the schedule variance?
A. 25
B. -25
C. 50
D. -50
95. Monika is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing. PV=200, EV=175, AC=150. What is CPI?
A. 1.33
B. 0.75
C. 1.14
D. 1.16
96. Which of the following is the most widely used contract type?
A. Cost plus incentive fee contracts
B. Fixed price incentive fee contracts
C. Cost plus award fee contracts
D. Firm fixed price contracts
97. In your project, you are using cost aggregation, expert judgment, and historical relationships to establish a cost performance baseline. This is performed during:
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Create WBS
98. Graphical representations of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes are also referred to as:
A. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B. System flow
C. Influence diagrams
D. Simulation diagrams
99. You are a project manager. At the executing stage of the project, all the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A. Most of the project budget will be expended in project plan execution.
B. The project manager and the team implement the planned methods and standards.
C. The project manager will review all information from the current phase closures.
D. The project manager and the team manage risks and implement risk response activities.
100. In your project, you need to verify whether deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. For this purpose, which of the following would you rely on?
A. Inspection
B. Expert judgment
C. Observations
D. Focus groups
101. In your project, you are using Report Performance process to organize and summarize the information gathered Later, you present the results of the analysis as a comparison to the performance measurement baseline Some common formats for performance reports that you could use are:
A. S-curves, histograms, Pareto diagrams
B. S-curves, responsibility assignment matrices ,histograms
C. Bar charts, S-curves, histograms
D. Bar charts, control charts, histograms
102. You gave a presentation at a local PMI chapter meet. This is an example of:
A. Volunteering
B. PDU
C. Contributing to project management body of knowledge
D. Donating to community
103. The customer was not satisfied with the finished product`s quality The cost of poor quality can also be referred to as:
A. Cost of conformance
B. Failure cost
C. Rework cost
D. Opportunity cost
104. As a project manager, you are responsible for managing changes to the project scope. If, at the end of the project, a customer wants a major change in the scope of work, you should:
A. Reject the change
B. Make the required change
C. Escalate the matter to senior management
D. Let the customer know about the impact of the change
105. There are three projects:
Project A has a payback period of 3 years and NPV of $ 300,000
Project B has a payback period of 2 years and NPV of $ 200,000
Project C has a payback period of 1 years and NPV of $ 100,000
Which project should be selected if NPV criterion is used?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project A, B, or C can be selected, because all of them have equal value
106. You are about to holder a bidder conference and one of the potential seller sends tickets for baseball match for your entire team. What should you do?
A. Go to the game
B. Return the tickets politely
C. Ask your team to go
D. Go to the game and inform your management about it
107. You are the project manager of a software company. You need ideas for project and product requirements. Which of the following techniques will you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Nominal group technique
D. Brainstorming
108. A team member is showing up late to work and leaving early, and it is affecting the project. The project manager decides that the team member must be reprimanded. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. In a one-on-one meeting with the team member
B. Over e-mail
C. At the next team meeting
D. In a private meeting with the team member and his functional manager
109. Which of the following statements on time and material contracts is accurate?
E. These types of contracts resemble cost-reimbursable type arrangements, because they are close ended.
F. T&M contracts cannot grow in value like a cost-reimbursable contract.
G. The full value of the agreement is defined at the time of contract award.
H. Unit rates can be fixed by the buyer and seller when both parties agree on the values for specific resource categories.
110. While creating a project schedule, what duration should a milestone have?
A. Zero
B. Duration equal to the phase duration
C. Duration equal to the time required for a particular task to be completed
D. Duration of the complete project till the milestone date
111. You recently went on an official trip to another country to discuss a business proposition with a potential vendor. The vendor took you out for lunch and offered you gifts, as it is customary in that country. You must:
A. Tell the vendor that you cannot accept the gifts as per company policy
B. Accept the gifts as it is a local custom and promptly inform your manager
C. Return the gifts, because accepting them could be interpreted as a personal gain
D. Accept the gifts, as they are not very expensive
112. __________is the process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.
A. Cost management
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
113. In your company, payback period is primarily used as the decision criterion for project selection. Payback period is the:
A. Number of years a company takes to get back the invested amount
B. Discount rate on an investment that makes present value of all cash inflows equal to present value of all cash outflows
C. Duration in which the project gets completed
D. Number of years a company takes to make profits equal to the amount invested
114. In your project, you have identified important risks and planned appropriate responses to the risks. Some risks- e.g. possibility of natural disasters impacting the project- have been documented and accepted in your risk management plan. What are the remaining risks called?
A. Unidentifiable Risks
B. Residual Risks
C. Secondary Risks
D. Accepted Risks
115. In a recent job interview, you are asked to define the most important characteristic of a project manager. Which of the following will be the best answer?
A. Subject matter expert
B. Integrator
C. Creative person
D. Risk minimizer
116. You are a project manager in a manufacturing company. You are developing a new product. In this context, you are conducting requirements workshop for the stakeholders to determine the product`s critical characteristics. Which technique would you use for this purpose?
A. Quality function deployment
B. Joint application development
C. Voice of the customer
D. Juran`s improvement technique
117. In your project, you establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. You believe that early commitment to clear guidelines will decrease misunderstanding and increase productivity. These expectations and guidelines are also known as:
A. Team-building activities
B. Ground rules
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Rules of conduct
118. Your friend requests you to lend him your accounting package software CDROM to install the software in his computer. You should:
A. Give him the software for free
B. Give him the software and charge some money for it
C. Refuse to give him the software
D. Report the copyright violation to the copyright owner of the software package
119. Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?
A. A project team member
B. An attorney from your company’s competitor
C. The project sponsor
D. A representative from your project team’s union
120. In your construction project, the CPI is 0.85 and SPI is 1.25. What could be the possible reason?
A. A critical resource went on sick leave for a long period of time, which had not been anticipated earlier.
B. The cost of raw materials required for construction increased by 10%. - You had anticipated a cost increase of 12% in your project plans.
C. In anticipation of delays, the project was crashed to decrease the duration.
D. There was four days waiting time in the curing of concrete, and work could not be done during that time.
121. __________ is used in collecting requirements, except:
A. Focus groups
B. Delphi Technique
C. Group decision making techniques
D. Decomposition
122. Even after carefully performing risk management for the project, you realize that possibility of new risks occurring in the future still exists. You will be able to handle such risks if you perform:
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Monitor and Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
123. Which of the following is not related to Direct and Manage Project Execution process:
A. Manage sellers and suppliers
B. Create project deliverables
C. Implement the planned methods and standards
D. Change control meetings
124. In projects, expert judgment will often be used throughout all the project integration processes. This can be provided by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Professional and technical associations
B. Competitors
C. Consultants
D. Other units within the organization
125. Which of the following tools is not used in Administer Procurements process?
A. Payment systems
B. Performance reporting
C. Inspections and audits
D. Procurement audits
126. When does bidder conference take place?
A. After the contract has been awarded
B. After submittal of bid or proposal
C. Prior to the submittal of a bid or proposal by the bidder
D. After technical meetings with bidders
127. What is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of a project?
A. The time period needed to pay back the investment from a project when future income is discounted.
B. The expected benefit from a project’s deliverable calculated as a percentage of the original investment over a specified time period.
C. The inherent discount rate or investment yield rate produced by the project over a pre-defined period of time.
D. The rate of negative risk that can be accepted for a project without turning the Expected net present value negative.
128. Which statement about conflicts is true?
A. Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives.
B. Conflict should always be handled in private and not in the team.
C. Conflict resolution should focus on people, not issues.
D. Too much openness is a common cause of conflict.
129. Calculate the to-complete performance index of your project given that the actual cost of your project is $125,000, cost variance is $65,000, and the budget at completion is $250,000.
A. 0.9
B. 0.48
C. 1.7
D. 0.3
130. Which of the following types of power is the most effective in leading teams?
A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Reward
D. Punishment
131. A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Time and Materials (T&M)
C. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
132. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
A. Requirements Documentation
B. Scope Dictionary
C. Project Scope Statement
D. Scope Definition
133. Which of the following can be BEST described as a characteristic of Work Package?
A. May or may not be cost estimated
B. Can be scheduled
C. Can be further decomposed into work packages
D. May be monitored subject to nature of the project
134. You are talking to experts and gathering independent estimates for your contract. The process is
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
135. You are having lunch with one of your colleagues. He tells you in confidence that he lied about having a PMP certification. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Report the person to PMI
B. Do nothing because you were told this in confidence
C. Ask him to tell the truth to his manager
D. Report the person to his manager
136. In your project, you have just conducted a risk data quality assessment to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management. What is your next step?
A. Perform a structured review of project plans and assumptions, both at the total project and detailed scope levels.
B. Develop checklists to identify risks based on historical information and knowledge that has been accumulated from previous similar projects.
C. Conduct planning meetings to develop the risk management plan.
D. Conduct interviews to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project activities.
137. You are the project manager for a project, which is being managed under a contract. You receive a change request from the buyer involving a government regulation. What should you do FIRST?
A. Talk with team members to understand implications of the change.
B. Communicate the change to the management to get their inputs.
C. Open up a change control.
D. Implement the change and communicate to the customer.
138. In your project, you would like to identify logical groupings based on natural relationships. Which one of the following techniques would you use?
A. Force field analysis
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Nominal group techniques
D. Brainstorming
139. One way the Close Project or Phase process differs from Close Procurement is:
A. Procurement closure involves verification that all work and deliverables are acceptable, where Close Project or Phase does not
B. Close Project or Phase is only a subset of Close Procurement
C. Procurement closure means verifying that the project is complete or terminated; Close Project or Phase is the process of tying up all of the activities for every management process group
D. Procurement closure is performed by the seller, Close Project or Phase is performed by the buyer
140. Where can you find the most updated version of the Scope Statement?
A. Configuration Management System
B. Document Repository
C. Project Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
141. In your project, your subcontracting requirements of the machining of high-value equipment are very demanding. Hence, you have determined the technical criteria to evaluate the sellers. This is an example of:
A. Objective evaluation criteria
B. Source selection criteria
C. Statement of work
D. Work breakdown structure
142. John is an excellent programmer. He was promoted to a role of Project Manager because he understands technology better than anyone else in the company. Unfortunately, he is having trouble doing the project management job. What is this an example of?
A. Halo effect
B. Ground rules
C. Pre-assignment
D. Gold plating
143. You have eight people in your project, and one more person will be joining next week. Once the new person joins, the number of communication channels will increase by:
A. 0
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
144. Which of the following project selection methods is NOT benefit measurement model?
A. Benefit-to-cost ratios
B. Peer review
C. Murder boards
D. Linear programming
145. Which of the following BEST describes the role of the project sponsor on the project?
A. Manages the project
B. Provides funding for the project
C. Verifies that all of the work is complete
D. Negotiates all contracts
146. Your company has recently been awarded a contract by the government to reconstruct houses devastated by an earthquake. In this context, the government`s role will impact your:
A. Project scope baseline
B. Business case and Business need
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
147. Which of these is not a valid response to positive risks?
A. Exploit
B. Mitigate
C. Enhance
D. Share
148. In your project, the risk calculations show that there is a risk of overrunning the project scope and schedule targets to levels that are beyond the threshold limits determined in the project. To bring the level of risk to a level acceptable to your organization, you should:
A. Consider using contingency reserves
B. Decrease the project scope and increase the project schedule
C. Talk with your sponsor about canceling the project
D. Do additional risk response planning
149. After joining as a stand-in project manager for an ongoing project, you are informed by the team that certain features are added to the deliverable which were not asked for by the customer, to earn customer appreciation. In this situation:
A. You are concerned, because the project team is gold-plating
B. You are happy, because the project will `exceed customer expectations`
C. You are worried that this is going to increase the project size
D. You are undecided about the increase in the quality metrics of the project
150. Project performance must be monitored and measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. All the following processes belong to monitoring and controlling EXCEPT:
A. Verify Scope
B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Report Performance
D. Perform Quality Assurance
151. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Cost aggregation estimating
152. Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?
A. Brainstorming
B. Risk Urgency Assessment
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Delphi technique
153. Refer to the diagram and find the critical path:
Activity A = 2 days, B = 9 days, C= 3 days, D = 3, days, E= 1 day, F = 2 days
A. Start – A-B- End
B. Start – C-D-E-F-B- End
C. Start – C-D-E-B-End
D. Start – C-B-End
154. How many paths are possible in diagram above?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
155. Of the following documents, all of which are updated during Control Schedule process, which is NOT a part of the project management plan?
A. Schedule baseline
B. Cost baseline
C. Schedule management plan
D. Schedule data
156. The product is rich with features. This means:
A. High-grade product
B. High-quality product
C. Expensive product
D. Low-grade product
157. As part of your duties as a project manager, you make sensitive company data available to a vendor. In this context, which of the following precautions should you take?
A. Insist that the vendor signs a non-disclosure agreement after you release the sensitive information.
B. Make sure that the vendor receives all the sensitive information in time.
C. Ensure that the vendor signs non-disclosure agreement before you release the sensitive information.
D. Monitor the vendor in order to prevent her from sharing the information with her competitors.
158. Change to the project schedule involves everything, EXCEPT,
A. Analyzing the impact of the change
B. Formally obtaining the approvals
C. Replacing the original schedule baseline
D. Preparing the formal change request
159. As the project manager in a software company, you are determining the possible costs to complete project activities. This is done as part of:
A. Variance analysis
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
160. Your project is very critical for the company and must be completed within six months. The project charter has been signed, but the scope statement is not yet prepared. The management asks you to go ahead with the project without the scope statement being approved. What should you do (select the best answer)?
A. Refuse to work on the project, because the management is not following standard project management practices.
B. To save time, you should start the project with inputs from the project charter.
C. Meet the management and explain the problems you may face if you start a project without a scope statement.
D. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and issue a risk memo.
161. A risk has a 25% probability of occurring and will result in a loss of $ 20,000. What is the expected monetary value associated with the risk?
A. - $5, 000
B. +$5,000
C. -10,000
D. -20,000
162. A risk has been identified. Which is the worst action on behalf of the Project Manager?
A. Transfer the risk
B. Avoid the risk
C. Reject the risk
D. Accept the risk
163. Ten members were assigned in advance to your project. This pre-assignment could be because of all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. Specific people were promised as part of a competitive proposal.
B. Suitable people volunteered to work on the project.
C. Staff assignments were defined in the project charter.
D. The project was dependent on the expertise of the pre-assigned persons
164. A contract which includes features of cost reimbursable and fixed price types of contract is a:
A. Fixed price plus incentive fee contract
B. Cost plus award fee contract
C. Time and material contract
D. Cost plus fixed fee contract
165. You are reviewing performance goals to figure out how much bonus to pay to your team members. What document would you consult to find your team’s bonus plan?
A. The reward and recognition plan
B. The staffing management plan
C. The human resource management plan
D. The project’s budget
166. A project manager on a dam construction project includes a line item in the budget for insurance for the equipment. This is an example of:
A. Avoidance
B. Acceptance
C. Mitigation
D. Transference
167. You are a member of the committee, which is appointed to oversee the awarding of an important contract, in your company. In this context, all of the following can be treated as conflict of interest situations, EXCEPT:
A. Your friend bids for the contract and you inform the committee and the project sponsor about it.
B. Your relative bids for the contract and you do not inform the project sponsor about it.
C. Your close friend bids for the contract and you refrain from participating in the contract awarding decision process without informing your sponsor.
D. Your friend bids for the contract and you make sure that the contract is awarded to him.
168. Another name for a compromise is a:
A. Win-win solution
B. Win-lose solution
C. Lose-lose solution
D. Standoff solution
169. Tom is the manager of a software project. His client has agreed on a Project Scope Statement but he comes up with features that he would like to add into the product. What is the BEST description of his project’s current situation?
A. Gold plating
B. Schedule variance
C. Scope creep
D. Alternatives analysis
170. You are working on an industrial design project. The project is complete. You are now meeting with your team to update the organizational process assets to help future project managers with their projects. This is BEST described as:
A. Lessons learned
B. Project records
C. Work performance information
D. Project management information system (PMIS)
171. Eric is a project manager for an IT project and using an Ishikawa diagram to figure out what could cause potential risks on his project. Which process is he doing?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
172. You are the project manager for a bridge construction project. Which of the following is the BEST metric to use for forecasting?
A. EV and AC
B. ETC and VAC
C. SPI and CPI
D. SV and CV
173. Where do you keep information about low priority risks?
A. Triggers
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Qualitative analysis documents
D. The watchlist
174. Schedule variance can be determined by:
A. BCWP - ACWP
B. ACWP - BCWP
C. EAC - ACWP
D. BCWP - BCWS
175. The following document lessons learned
E. The Project manager and the project team
A. The sponsor
B. The Project manager
C. The key stakeholders
176. When is the BEST time to have project kickoff meetings?
A. At the beginning of the project
B. When each deliverable is created
C. At the start of each phase
D. When the Communications Management plan is approved
177. Which of the following processes is in the Initiating process group?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
178. You are a project manager on a software project. You have just prepared an RFP to send around to software testing companies. Your friend calls you who own a software testing company. He wants to bid on your project. You know he’s done good work before, and it may be a good fit for your company. How do you proceed?
A. You disclose the conflict of interest to your company, and disqualify your friend’s company
B. You disclose the conflict of interest to your company, and make the selection based on objective criteria
C. You disclose the conflict of interest to your company, and provide your friend with information that the other bidders don’t have so that he has a better chance of winning the contract
D. You do not disclose the conflict of interest, and give your friend the bid
179. What is a risk owner?
A. The project team members
B. The project manager
C. The person who is responsible for the response plan for the risk.
D. The person who makes a risk happen.
180. Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
A. Cost
B. Resources
C. Scope
D. Procurements
181. You are managing a project with an EV of $30,000, PV of $24,000 and AC of $22,000. How would you BEST describe this project?
A. The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget
B. The project is behind schedule and within its budget
C. The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget
D. The project is behind schedule and over its budget
182. You are managing a project with AC = $25,000, ETC = $50,000, BAC = $45,000 and EAC = $70,000. Your sponsor asks you to forecast how much money you expect to spend on the remainder of the project. Which is the BEST estimate to use for this forecast?
A. $50,000
B. $25,000
C. $5,000
D. $75,000
183. A project manager discovers that a project problem has occurred. The problem was never discussed during risk planning activities. What is the BEST response?
A. Stop all project activity and approach senior management for advice
B. Use the contingency reserve to cover the cost of risk
C. Use the management reserve to cover the cost of risk
D. Just accept that there is a problem that the team did not plan for
184. A notice sent to a sub-contractor about the contract is an example of which kind of communication?
A. Formal Written
B. Formal Verbal
C. Informal Verbal
D. Informal Written
185. A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called:
A. Negotiation
B. Arbitration
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
186. A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope definition is called:
A. Scope Definition Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix
187. Which of the following is often overlooked in achieving effective communication?
A. speaking clearly
B. listening
C. interpreting
D. maintaining eye contact
188. Appraisal costs that are used to assess the quality include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Testing
B. Destructive testing loss
C. Inspections
D. Training
189. The most precise or accurate estimate for determining project costs is the _____ estimate.
A. Definitive.
B. Analogy
C. Budget
D. Rough Order of Magnitude
190. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called __________.
A. Project plan
B. Statement of work
C. Pareto analysis
D. Code of accounts
191. For communication to occur there must be:
A. Two or more entities involved
B. Transmission of information
C. Medium of exchange
D. All of the above
192. ROI (Return on Investment) analysis includes all, except
A. Sunk Cost
B. Payback period
C. Internal rate of Return (IRR)
D. Net Present Value (NPV)
193. An advertiser who uses a movie or sports star to endorse a product is trying to use power.
A. Legitimate
B. Reward
C. Influential
D. Referent
194. Overlapping activities on a project, such as design and construction, is referred to as:
A. Fast tracking
B. Compression
C. Parallel management
D. Process improvement
195. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications.
B. The cost of quality is mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the product.
C. Quality control programs should be implemented when the cost of quality are deemed affordable by management.
D. A and C
196. You need to determine when to release resources from your project. Which part of the staffing management plan will be most useful for this?
A. RACI Chart
B. Recognition and rewards
C. Training needs
D. Resource histogram
197. A line manager provides you with three estimates for his activity in your PERT network. His estimates are 2 weeks optimistically, 4 weeks most likely, and 12 weeks pessimistically. The expected time which would appear on the chart would be:
A. 4 weeks
B. 5 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 7 weeks
198. The first step in building a PERT/CPM network is to:
A. Create a flow chart
B. Determine the critical path
C. Show task relationships
D. Create a work breakdown structure
199. Resource leveling will often affect the project by making it:
A. Shorter
B. Longer
C. More responsive to customer needs
D. A and C
200. _____________ is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer Key
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1. A document called ____________ is created by decomposing the project scope into smaller, more manageable elements.
A. Scope Statement
B. Network Logic Diagram
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Requested Change
2. Activity duration estimates are best prepared by:
A. The team members who would do the actual work
B. The project manager, to ensure the schedule is met
C. The functional manager because they understand the work
D. The project team
3. Which of the following provides a statistical forecast of the final EAC assuming that all remaining work will be done at the budgeted rate?
A. [(BAC - EV) / (CPI x SPI)] + actual to date = EAC
B. [(BAC + EV) / (CPI x SPI)] + actual to date = EAC
C. [(ETC) / (CPI x SPI)] + actual to date = EAC
D. (BAC - EV) + actual to date = EAC
4. While reviewing a project network diagram, you note that an activity has Early Start time = 1 day and Late start time = 4 days. What is the float for this activity?
A. +3 days
B. - 3 days
C. 75%
D. Zero, because activity on critical path have zero slack
5. This of the following is generally not regarded as an element of active listening:
A. Paraphrasing
B. Making eye contact
C. Interpreting the information
D. Interrupting to ask questions
6. You are the project manager in a company where you have maximum authority. To which organizational structure does your company belong?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
7. Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which of the following Activity Sequencing techniques:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Schedule Network Templates
8. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Sequence Activities process:
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Activity Attributes
C. Activity List
D. Change Requests
9. In a kick-off meeting for your project, you provided information to your team members about the different process groups to be followed in the project. According to PMI, which are the project management process groups
A. Conceptualizing, Initiating, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
C. Initiating, Verifying, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Controlling, and Administrative Closure
10. You are working in the Project Management Office (PMO) of your organization. Your job responsibility is to:
A. Manage the operational activities in the company
B. Manage human resource and risk management issues for individual projects
C. Provide support functions to project managers in the form of training, providing software, standardizing policies, etc.
D. Provide subject matter expertise in the functional areas of the project
11. Which of the following is a technique for Sequence Activities:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Rolling Wave Planning
D. Mandatory Dependencies
12. Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Define Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
13. A project manager spent some days to create a multi-page document which he called Project charter. The document should have been issued by the project sponsor. The sponsor found the document outsized and asked for a condensed document.
Which of the following is not normally an element of the Project charter?
A. The authority level of the project manager
B. Detailed control account and work package descriptions
C. The business need that the project was undertaken to address
D. High-level risks
14. During a project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following numbers: EV: 523,000; PV: 623,000; AC: 643,000.
Which results are correct?
A. CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000
B. CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000
C. CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000
D. CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000
15. If budget at completion = $ 500, estimate to complete = $400, earned value= $100, and actual cost = $200, what is the estimate at complete?
A. $0
B. $150
C. $350
D. $600
16. Which of the following process sequence is correct?
A. Create WBS, Determine Budget, Estimate Cost
B. Create WBS, Estimate Cost, Determine Budget
C. Determine Budget, Estimate Cost, Create WBS
D. Estimate Cost, Budget Cost, Create WBS
17. Which of the following tools is used to create a Risk Management Plan?
A. Risk planning meetings
B. Documentation reviews
C. Data precision rankings
D. Diagramming techniques
18. Resource Leveling is a technique to:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
19. Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
20. Which of the following statements describes best the relationship of quality and grade?
A. Low grade is always a problem; low quality may be overcome by a good rework and repair process.
B. Grade is a category or rank given to entities having different functional requirements but the same need for quality.
C. Both quality and grade can often be improved through intelligent measuring, testing and examining.
D. Low quality is always a problem as it bears on the ability of an item to meet requirements; low grade may sometimes be acceptable.
21. Network templates which contain only portions of a network are often referred to as
A. Subnetworks or fragment networks
B. Subprojects
C. Programs
D. WBS items
22. Following can be BEST described as a kind of dependency that can create arbitrary float values and limit scheduling options:
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. Start-to-Finish dependency
D. External dependency
23. Critical path method is used in which of the following processes:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Durations
24. What is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of a project?
A. The time period needed to pay back the investment from a project when future income is discounted.
B. The inherent discount rate or investment yield rate produced by the project over a pre-defined period of time.
C. The rate of negative risk that can be accepted for a project without turning the Expected net present value negative.
D. The expected benefit from a project’s deliverable calculated as a percentage of the original investment over a specified time period.
25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?
A. Constrained by limited resources
B. Planned, executed, and controlled
C. Creates a unique product or service
D. Ongoing and repetitive
26. Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is BEST done during which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Duration
27. You have reached the end of the design phase of your project. You decide to call a "phase end review" for obtaining authorization to close the design phase and initiate the next phase (i.e., execution phase) of your project. Your manager disagrees with your suggestion. He wants a "kill point" to formally end the design phase of the project. In this context, you should:
A. Disagree with your manager because you know that phase end reviews should be used at the end of each phase of the project
B. Agree with your manager
C. Escalate this issue to the project sponsor
D. Take advice from a senior project manager about what should actually be done at the end of each phase of the project
28. Which statement describes best the meaning of the term Cost baseline?
A. A cost baseline is always created by translating time-phased cost information into cost data on activity or work-package level.
B. A cost baseline is an approved time-phased budget that will be used to measure and monitor cost performance on the project.
C. Data to draw a cost baseline can be easily generated and updated as necessary from information related to actual project cost.
D. A cost baseline is usually displayed in the form of an inverse S-curve drawn from the beginning of the project until data date.
29. Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which Project Scheduling technique:
A. Critical Path Method
B. Schedule Compression
C. What-if Analysis
D. Resource Leveling
30. Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is MOST likely to give rise to which of the following dependencies:
A. Finish-to-Start dependency
B. Soft Logic
C. Mandatory dependency
D. External dependency
31. The receiver filters messages based on all but the following:
A. Culture
B. Semantics
C. Language
D. Distance
32. The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of:
A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Encrypting
D. Promoting
33. Which of the following exhibits greatest resistance to change?
A. Business Requirements
B. Technology
C. People
D. Environment
34. Matrix organizations exhibit features of both projectized and functional organizations. In a weak matrix organization, the role of a project manager may be that of a:
A. Coordinator
B. Manager with considerable authority
C. Support person
D. Functional manager
35. Reserve Analysis involves:
A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
B. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
D. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
36. Which of the following is not true for Resource Leveling:
A. Project schedule is build with resource buffers to prevent schedule slippage
B. Project’s Critical path may be altered
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
37. Lessons Learned can be documented:
A. At the end of project closing
B. During the project lifecycle and at the end
C. When there is time available
D. At the end of all project phases
38. Perform ______________ is the process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
A. Quality Control
B. Quality planning
C. Quality Assurance
D. Process Control
39. These are Cost of Conformance in Quality, except
A. Training
B. Processes
C. Testing and Inspection
D. Warranty
40. With your team you are using judgment from subject matter experts to identify and analyze project risks. There is a small number of experts available, but they have been in a teacher-student or manager-team member relationship. Which of the following techniques can ensure best that there is no dominating opinion?
A. Peer review
B. SWOT analysis
C. Delphi technique
D. Monetary value calculation
41. The concept of zero inventory is called:
A. Six sigma
B. Continuous improvement
C. Just in Time
D. Zero defects
42. What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?
A. To show task dependencies.
B. To show resource constraints.
C. To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.
D. To highlight the critical path.
43. You are in Perform Quality Assurance process in your project. Which technique would you use?
A. Quality Audit
B. Code review
C. Scope verification
D. Inspection
44. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost contracts are more desirable for the:
A. Owner
B. Buyer
C. Seller
D. Contractor
E. C or D
45. You leave a voice mail for the team lead for the quality team. This is an example of:
A. Formal verbal
B. Informal verbal
C. Formal written
D. Informal written
46. The project you are managing has 6 stakeholders. How many channels of communications are there between these stakeholders?
A. 14
B. 16
C. 15
D. 18
47. Which communication process is part of Monitoring and controlling process group?
A. Control Communication
B. Manage stakeholder engagement
C. Manage Communication
D. Plan communication
48. A stakeholder with _____ power and ____ interest must be kept informed of your project’s progress
A. high, high
B. low, low
C. high, low
D. low, high
49. In your organization, all big technical projects go through Initiate, Analyze, Design, Implement, Test, and Closeout. In this context, a project life cycle:
A. Defines the product life cycle
B. Defines the project phases
C. Contains several product life cycles
D. Has deliverables that must be completed before work starts on the next phase
50. _____________________ is a statistical method that helps identify which factors might influence specific variables
A. CPM
B. Design of Experiments
C. Statistical sampling
D. Benchmarking
51. ____________ is created by decomposing the project scope into smaller, more manageable elements.
A. Scope Statement
B. Network Logic Diagram
C. Requested Change
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
52. As a Project Manager for a construction company, you are responsible to Define Scope, Define Activities, Develop Schedule, and Estimate Budget. These responsibilities are performed as part of:
A. Closing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
53. The project manager is in charge of all the following aspects of the project EXCEPT:
A. Keep the project on track in terms of schedule and budget
B. Identify, monitor, and respond to risk
C. Provide accurate and timely report of project metrics
D. Ensure integrity of project team members
54. What are the various cost types in quality management?
A. Planning costs, doing costs, checking costs
B. Planning costs, assurance costs, control costs
C. Costs of good quality, costs of bad quality
D. Prevention costs, appraisal costs, failure costs
55. You schedule a kick-off meeting two weeks in advance, along with the agenda of the meeting. Now, just 2-3 days before the meeting few team members decline the meeting request, but they will be joining when the project work starts.
A. You should insist on team members joining the meeting on the planned date
B. It is probably a good idea to re-schedule the meeting
C. You should force the team members to join the meeting
D. The kick-off meeting is secondary. You would publish the Minutes of the Meeting any way
56. During project execution, you find out the team members are not delivering the work in right order and right time. This is leading to problems in the deliverables of other team members. What tool is the used to solve the above issues?
A. RACI Chart
B. Work Authorization System
C. Communication management plan
D. Staffing plan
57. Which of the following has most risk for the buyer?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
C. Time and Material (T&M)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
58. You are using Qualified Sellers List. Which process of procurement are you in?
A. Plan procurements
B. Administer procurements
C. Conduct procurements
D. Close procurements
59. Scope baseline includes:
A. Various management plans of the project
B. WBS, WBS dictionary, and scope statement
C. Schedule baseline and cost baseline
D. Statement of work and Contract
60. The _______________ is a document which describes how the project management team will implement the organization’s quality policy
A. Quality assurance plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Quality audit plan
D. Quality control plan
61. Which are the five kinds of power?
A. Legitimate, expert, reward, punishment, and referent
B. Legitimate, expert, reward, political, and referent
C. Legitimate, expert, reward, punishment, and political
D. Legitimate, expert, reward, political, and economic
62. Your project stakeholder has asked you to create a financial plan for your project. Preparing a financial plan will require:
A. Program management skills
B. Industry specific skills
C. Financial subject matter expertise
D. Both project management and industry specific skills
63. You found the following Earned Value Analysis information for a recently closed out project: SPI = 0.6, CPI = 1.0
A. The project has been cancelled while it was executed. At that time the project was behind schedule and on budget.
B. The project has been cancelled while it was executed. At that time the project was ahead of schedule but on budget.
C. The project's deliverables have all been finished. At that time the project was on schedule but over budget.
D. The project's deliverables have all been finished. At that time the project was behind schedule but on budget.
64. You are planning for your project. In this context, which of the following processes should you consider?
A. Define Scope, Develop Schedule, Plan Risk Management, Plan Communications
B. Plan Quality, Plan Procurements, Plan Risk Responses, Control Costs
C. Perform Quality Assurance, Develop Project Team, Distribute Information, Plan Risk Management
D. Verify Scope, Perform Quality Control, Control Schedule, Control Costs
65. Your company CEO wants to set up a project management office (PMO) in the company. You have been assigned the responsibility to define the scope of work for the PMO. You are aware that ideally a PMO can facilitate all the following EXCEPT:
A. Help manage shared resources
B. Bring order and organize communications across projects
C. Provide support functions like training and mentoring
D. Define specific strategic business objectives
66. Which of the following statement is most true?
A. Creating WBS can enhances team buy-in
B. Creating WBS identifies key risks
C. Creating WBS results in compressed project schedule
D. Creating WBS identifies activities on critical path
67. Which of the following is not a Project Management Knowledge Area?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Procurement Management
C. Project Configuration Management
D. Project Communications Management
68. Cost estimating tools include:
A. Analogous estimating, bottom-up estimating, activity duration estimating
B. Analogous estimating, bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating, estimating publications
D. Bottom-up estimating, parametric estimating, chart of accounts
69. During a project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following numbers: EV: 62,500; PV: 72,500; AC: 74,500.
Which results are correct?
A. CV: -12,000; SV: -10,000
B. CV: +12,000; SV: +10,000
C. CV: +10,000; SV: +12,000
D. CV: -10,000; SV: -12,000
70. As a project manager, you have identified the stakeholders of your project. What should you do NEXT?
A. Update Project Charter
B. Create Project Management Plan
C. Create Communications Management Plan
D. Create Stakeholder Register
71. You are the project manager in a company, which has a balanced matrix organizational structure. Who do you report to?
A. Functional Manager
B. Program Manager
C. Manager of Project Managers
D. Portfolio Sponsor
72. Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
C. Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
73. The lowest level elements in a WBS are often called:
A. Work authorization packages
B. Decompositions
C. Work packages
D. Work package templates
74. You are the project manager for a software company and outsourcing part of the work. You are paying $ 25 per hour for an employee and $ 200 per month as overhead. The type of contract is:
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
C. Time and Material (T&M)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
75. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed is called:
A. Quality Policy
B. Check list
C. Trend analysis
D. Pareto diagram
76. WBS major deliverables should be subdivided till the level where
A. The use of quality control charts can be considered
B. Components can be estimated for cost, time and acceptance criteria
C. The components can be completed by one person
D. Lowest level components do not fall on critical path
77. Perform _______________ is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
A. Quality Control
B. Quality planning
C. Quality Assurance
D. Process Control
78. A diagram that shows how various elements of a system relate is called:
A. CPM
B. Bar Chart
C. Network diagram
D. Flowchart
79. As a project manager, you are responsible for meeting the project schedule deadlines. If there is some delay in the project schedule, you should (choose the most appropriate answer):
A. Increase the timeline for the project.
B. Fast track or crash the project, and let the management know the impact of this action.
C. Ask the resources to work overtime to meet the project deadlines.
D. Change the project scope.
80. In evaluating contracts there are a number of components that make a contract enforceable. All of the following items are needed to make a contract legal except_____.
A. An offer
B. Legal purpose
C. Negotiation
D. Consideration
81. The Project Manager is evaluating data from a control chart and discovers nine consecutive data points on one side of the control chart. This is called what?
A. Too tight of control limits
B. A violation of the Seven Run Rule
C. Too loose of specification limits
D. Acceptable measurements
82. Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories?
A. Mitigation
B. Acceptance
C. Avoidance
D. Analysis
83. The Project charter contains all the following, except:
A. The authority level of the project manager
B. The business need that the project was undertaken to address
C. High-level risks
D. Detailed control account and work package descriptions
84. When should risk identification be performed?
A. During Planning Phase
B. During Execution Phase
C. During Initiation Phase
D. Risk identification should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project
85. Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
A. Unknown unknowns
B. Known unknowns
C. business risks
D. pure risks
86. A ROM estimate should be accurate to what degree:
A. -10%, +25%
B. -50%, +50%
C. -5%, + 10%
D. -50, +100%
87. The cost baseline is:
A. A formal document that documents how EVM will be measured and report performance
B. A time-phased budget, used to monitor and measure project cost performance
C. A time-phased budget, used as a supporting document to justify activity cost estimates
D. A formal document that shows how to project cost variances will be managed
88. The inputs to cost budgeting include all, except:
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Cost performance baseline
C. Scope baseline
D. Project schedule
89. Which of the following becomes increasingly important in a virtual team environment?
A. Requirements engineering
B. Communication planning
C. Formal procurements closure
D. Network diagramming
90. Assuming a PERT weighted average computation, what is the probability of completing the project within plus-or-minus 3 standard deviations of the mean?
A. 68%
B. 99.74%
C. 95%
D. 75%
91. The project has a SPI of 1.19. This implies:
A. The project is under budget by 19%
B. The project is over budget by 19%
C. The project is progressing at 81% rate of the originally planned
D. The project is progressing at 119% rate of the originally planned
92. The project has a CV of - $50,000. This implies:
A. The project is under budget by $50,000
B. The project is over budget by $50,000
C. The project is behind schedule
D. The project is ahead of schedule
93. Monika is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing. PV=200, EV=175, AC=150. What is the cost variance?
A. 25
B. -25
C. 50
D. -50
94. Monika is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing. PV=200, EV=175, AC=150. What is the schedule variance?
A. 25
B. -25
C. 50
D. -50
95. Monika is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing. PV=200, EV=175, AC=150. What is CPI?
A. 1.33
B. 0.75
C. 1.14
D. 1.16
96. Which of the following is the most widely used contract type?
A. Cost plus incentive fee contracts
B. Fixed price incentive fee contracts
C. Cost plus award fee contracts
D. Firm fixed price contracts
97. In your project, you are using cost aggregation, expert judgment, and historical relationships to establish a cost performance baseline. This is performed during:
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Create WBS
98. Graphical representations of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes are also referred to as:
A. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B. System flow
C. Influence diagrams
D. Simulation diagrams
99. You are a project manager. At the executing stage of the project, all the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A. Most of the project budget will be expended in project plan execution.
B. The project manager and the team implement the planned methods and standards.
C. The project manager will review all information from the current phase closures.
D. The project manager and the team manage risks and implement risk response activities.
100. In your project, you need to verify whether deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. For this purpose, which of the following would you rely on?
A. Inspection
B. Expert judgment
C. Observations
D. Focus groups
101. In your project, you are using Report Performance process to organize and summarize the information gathered Later, you present the results of the analysis as a comparison to the performance measurement baseline Some common formats for performance reports that you could use are:
A. S-curves, histograms, Pareto diagrams
B. S-curves, responsibility assignment matrices ,histograms
C. Bar charts, S-curves, histograms
D. Bar charts, control charts, histograms
102. You gave a presentation at a local PMI chapter meet. This is an example of:
A. Volunteering
B. PDU
C. Contributing to project management body of knowledge
D. Donating to community
103. The customer was not satisfied with the finished product`s quality The cost of poor quality can also be referred to as:
A. Cost of conformance
B. Failure cost
C. Rework cost
D. Opportunity cost
104. As a project manager, you are responsible for managing changes to the project scope. If, at the end of the project, a customer wants a major change in the scope of work, you should:
A. Reject the change
B. Make the required change
C. Escalate the matter to senior management
D. Let the customer know about the impact of the change
105. There are three projects:
Project A has a payback period of 3 years and NPV of $ 300,000
Project B has a payback period of 2 years and NPV of $ 200,000
Project C has a payback period of 1 years and NPV of $ 100,000
Which project should be selected if NPV criterion is used?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project A, B, or C can be selected, because all of them have equal value
106. You are about to holder a bidder conference and one of the potential seller sends tickets for baseball match for your entire team. What should you do?
A. Go to the game
B. Return the tickets politely
C. Ask your team to go
D. Go to the game and inform your management about it
107. You are the project manager of a software company. You need ideas for project and product requirements. Which of the following techniques will you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Nominal group technique
D. Brainstorming
108. A team member is showing up late to work and leaving early, and it is affecting the project. The project manager decides that the team member must be reprimanded. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. In a one-on-one meeting with the team member
B. Over e-mail
C. At the next team meeting
D. In a private meeting with the team member and his functional manager
109. Which of the following statements on time and material contracts is accurate?
E. These types of contracts resemble cost-reimbursable type arrangements, because they are close ended.
F. T&M contracts cannot grow in value like a cost-reimbursable contract.
G. The full value of the agreement is defined at the time of contract award.
H. Unit rates can be fixed by the buyer and seller when both parties agree on the values for specific resource categories.
110. While creating a project schedule, what duration should a milestone have?
A. Zero
B. Duration equal to the phase duration
C. Duration equal to the time required for a particular task to be completed
D. Duration of the complete project till the milestone date
111. You recently went on an official trip to another country to discuss a business proposition with a potential vendor. The vendor took you out for lunch and offered you gifts, as it is customary in that country. You must:
A. Tell the vendor that you cannot accept the gifts as per company policy
B. Accept the gifts as it is a local custom and promptly inform your manager
C. Return the gifts, because accepting them could be interpreted as a personal gain
D. Accept the gifts, as they are not very expensive
112. __________is the process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.
A. Cost management
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
113. In your company, payback period is primarily used as the decision criterion for project selection. Payback period is the:
A. Number of years a company takes to get back the invested amount
B. Discount rate on an investment that makes present value of all cash inflows equal to present value of all cash outflows
C. Duration in which the project gets completed
D. Number of years a company takes to make profits equal to the amount invested
114. In your project, you have identified important risks and planned appropriate responses to the risks. Some risks- e.g. possibility of natural disasters impacting the project- have been documented and accepted in your risk management plan. What are the remaining risks called?
A. Unidentifiable Risks
B. Residual Risks
C. Secondary Risks
D. Accepted Risks
115. In a recent job interview, you are asked to define the most important characteristic of a project manager. Which of the following will be the best answer?
A. Subject matter expert
B. Integrator
C. Creative person
D. Risk minimizer
116. You are a project manager in a manufacturing company. You are developing a new product. In this context, you are conducting requirements workshop for the stakeholders to determine the product`s critical characteristics. Which technique would you use for this purpose?
A. Quality function deployment
B. Joint application development
C. Voice of the customer
D. Juran`s improvement technique
117. In your project, you establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. You believe that early commitment to clear guidelines will decrease misunderstanding and increase productivity. These expectations and guidelines are also known as:
A. Team-building activities
B. Ground rules
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Rules of conduct
118. Your friend requests you to lend him your accounting package software CDROM to install the software in his computer. You should:
A. Give him the software for free
B. Give him the software and charge some money for it
C. Refuse to give him the software
D. Report the copyright violation to the copyright owner of the software package
119. Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?
A. A project team member
B. An attorney from your company’s competitor
C. The project sponsor
D. A representative from your project team’s union
120. In your construction project, the CPI is 0.85 and SPI is 1.25. What could be the possible reason?
A. A critical resource went on sick leave for a long period of time, which had not been anticipated earlier.
B. The cost of raw materials required for construction increased by 10%. - You had anticipated a cost increase of 12% in your project plans.
C. In anticipation of delays, the project was crashed to decrease the duration.
D. There was four days waiting time in the curing of concrete, and work could not be done during that time.
121. __________ is used in collecting requirements, except:
A. Focus groups
B. Delphi Technique
C. Group decision making techniques
D. Decomposition
122. Even after carefully performing risk management for the project, you realize that possibility of new risks occurring in the future still exists. You will be able to handle such risks if you perform:
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Monitor and Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
123. Which of the following is not related to Direct and Manage Project Execution process:
A. Manage sellers and suppliers
B. Create project deliverables
C. Implement the planned methods and standards
D. Change control meetings
124. In projects, expert judgment will often be used throughout all the project integration processes. This can be provided by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Professional and technical associations
B. Competitors
C. Consultants
D. Other units within the organization
125. Which of the following tools is not used in Administer Procurements process?
A. Payment systems
B. Performance reporting
C. Inspections and audits
D. Procurement audits
126. When does bidder conference take place?
A. After the contract has been awarded
B. After submittal of bid or proposal
C. Prior to the submittal of a bid or proposal by the bidder
D. After technical meetings with bidders
127. What is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of a project?
A. The time period needed to pay back the investment from a project when future income is discounted.
B. The expected benefit from a project’s deliverable calculated as a percentage of the original investment over a specified time period.
C. The inherent discount rate or investment yield rate produced by the project over a pre-defined period of time.
D. The rate of negative risk that can be accepted for a project without turning the Expected net present value negative.
128. Which statement about conflicts is true?
A. Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives.
B. Conflict should always be handled in private and not in the team.
C. Conflict resolution should focus on people, not issues.
D. Too much openness is a common cause of conflict.
129. Calculate the to-complete performance index of your project given that the actual cost of your project is $125,000, cost variance is $65,000, and the budget at completion is $250,000.
A. 0.9
B. 0.48
C. 1.7
D. 0.3
130. Which of the following types of power is the most effective in leading teams?
A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Reward
D. Punishment
131. A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Time and Materials (T&M)
C. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
D. Firm fixed price (FFP)
132. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
A. Requirements Documentation
B. Scope Dictionary
C. Project Scope Statement
D. Scope Definition
133. Which of the following can be BEST described as a characteristic of Work Package?
A. May or may not be cost estimated
B. Can be scheduled
C. Can be further decomposed into work packages
D. May be monitored subject to nature of the project
134. You are talking to experts and gathering independent estimates for your contract. The process is
A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
135. You are having lunch with one of your colleagues. He tells you in confidence that he lied about having a PMP certification. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Report the person to PMI
B. Do nothing because you were told this in confidence
C. Ask him to tell the truth to his manager
D. Report the person to his manager
136. In your project, you have just conducted a risk data quality assessment to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management. What is your next step?
A. Perform a structured review of project plans and assumptions, both at the total project and detailed scope levels.
B. Develop checklists to identify risks based on historical information and knowledge that has been accumulated from previous similar projects.
C. Conduct planning meetings to develop the risk management plan.
D. Conduct interviews to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project activities.
137. You are the project manager for a project, which is being managed under a contract. You receive a change request from the buyer involving a government regulation. What should you do FIRST?
A. Talk with team members to understand implications of the change.
B. Communicate the change to the management to get their inputs.
C. Open up a change control.
D. Implement the change and communicate to the customer.
138. In your project, you would like to identify logical groupings based on natural relationships. Which one of the following techniques would you use?
A. Force field analysis
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Nominal group techniques
D. Brainstorming
139. One way the Close Project or Phase process differs from Close Procurement is:
A. Procurement closure involves verification that all work and deliverables are acceptable, where Close Project or Phase does not
B. Close Project or Phase is only a subset of Close Procurement
C. Procurement closure means verifying that the project is complete or terminated; Close Project or Phase is the process of tying up all of the activities for every management process group
D. Procurement closure is performed by the seller, Close Project or Phase is performed by the buyer
140. Where can you find the most updated version of the Scope Statement?
A. Configuration Management System
B. Document Repository
C. Project Management Plan
D. Communications Management Plan
141. In your project, your subcontracting requirements of the machining of high-value equipment are very demanding. Hence, you have determined the technical criteria to evaluate the sellers. This is an example of:
A. Objective evaluation criteria
B. Source selection criteria
C. Statement of work
D. Work breakdown structure
142. John is an excellent programmer. He was promoted to a role of Project Manager because he understands technology better than anyone else in the company. Unfortunately, he is having trouble doing the project management job. What is this an example of?
A. Halo effect
B. Ground rules
C. Pre-assignment
D. Gold plating
143. You have eight people in your project, and one more person will be joining next week. Once the new person joins, the number of communication channels will increase by:
A. 0
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
144. Which of the following project selection methods is NOT benefit measurement model?
A. Benefit-to-cost ratios
B. Peer review
C. Murder boards
D. Linear programming
145. Which of the following BEST describes the role of the project sponsor on the project?
A. Manages the project
B. Provides funding for the project
C. Verifies that all of the work is complete
D. Negotiates all contracts
146. Your company has recently been awarded a contract by the government to reconstruct houses devastated by an earthquake. In this context, the government`s role will impact your:
A. Project scope baseline
B. Business case and Business need
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
147. Which of these is not a valid response to positive risks?
A. Exploit
B. Mitigate
C. Enhance
D. Share
148. In your project, the risk calculations show that there is a risk of overrunning the project scope and schedule targets to levels that are beyond the threshold limits determined in the project. To bring the level of risk to a level acceptable to your organization, you should:
A. Consider using contingency reserves
B. Decrease the project scope and increase the project schedule
C. Talk with your sponsor about canceling the project
D. Do additional risk response planning
149. After joining as a stand-in project manager for an ongoing project, you are informed by the team that certain features are added to the deliverable which were not asked for by the customer, to earn customer appreciation. In this situation:
A. You are concerned, because the project team is gold-plating
B. You are happy, because the project will `exceed customer expectations`
C. You are worried that this is going to increase the project size
D. You are undecided about the increase in the quality metrics of the project
150. Project performance must be monitored and measured regularly to identify variances from the plan. All the following processes belong to monitoring and controlling EXCEPT:
A. Verify Scope
B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Report Performance
D. Perform Quality Assurance
151. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Cost aggregation estimating
152. Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?
A. Brainstorming
B. Risk Urgency Assessment
C. SWOT Analysis
D. Delphi technique
153. Refer to the diagram and find the critical path:
Activity A = 2 days, B = 9 days, C= 3 days, D = 3, days, E= 1 day, F = 2 days
A. Start – A-B- End
B. Start – C-D-E-F-B- End
C. Start – C-D-E-B-End
D. Start – C-B-End
154. How many paths are possible in diagram above?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
155. Of the following documents, all of which are updated during Control Schedule process, which is NOT a part of the project management plan?
A. Schedule baseline
B. Cost baseline
C. Schedule management plan
D. Schedule data
156. The product is rich with features. This means:
A. High-grade product
B. High-quality product
C. Expensive product
D. Low-grade product
157. As part of your duties as a project manager, you make sensitive company data available to a vendor. In this context, which of the following precautions should you take?
A. Insist that the vendor signs a non-disclosure agreement after you release the sensitive information.
B. Make sure that the vendor receives all the sensitive information in time.
C. Ensure that the vendor signs non-disclosure agreement before you release the sensitive information.
D. Monitor the vendor in order to prevent her from sharing the information with her competitors.
158. Change to the project schedule involves everything, EXCEPT,
A. Analyzing the impact of the change
B. Formally obtaining the approvals
C. Replacing the original schedule baseline
D. Preparing the formal change request
159. As the project manager in a software company, you are determining the possible costs to complete project activities. This is done as part of:
A. Variance analysis
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
160. Your project is very critical for the company and must be completed within six months. The project charter has been signed, but the scope statement is not yet prepared. The management asks you to go ahead with the project without the scope statement being approved. What should you do (select the best answer)?
A. Refuse to work on the project, because the management is not following standard project management practices.
B. To save time, you should start the project with inputs from the project charter.
C. Meet the management and explain the problems you may face if you start a project without a scope statement.
D. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and issue a risk memo.
161. A risk has a 25% probability of occurring and will result in a loss of $ 20,000. What is the expected monetary value associated with the risk?
A. - $5, 000
B. +$5,000
C. -10,000
D. -20,000
162. A risk has been identified. Which is the worst action on behalf of the Project Manager?
A. Transfer the risk
B. Avoid the risk
C. Reject the risk
D. Accept the risk
163. Ten members were assigned in advance to your project. This pre-assignment could be because of all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. Specific people were promised as part of a competitive proposal.
B. Suitable people volunteered to work on the project.
C. Staff assignments were defined in the project charter.
D. The project was dependent on the expertise of the pre-assigned persons
164. A contract which includes features of cost reimbursable and fixed price types of contract is a:
A. Fixed price plus incentive fee contract
B. Cost plus award fee contract
C. Time and material contract
D. Cost plus fixed fee contract
165. You are reviewing performance goals to figure out how much bonus to pay to your team members. What document would you consult to find your team’s bonus plan?
A. The reward and recognition plan
B. The staffing management plan
C. The human resource management plan
D. The project’s budget
166. A project manager on a dam construction project includes a line item in the budget for insurance for the equipment. This is an example of:
A. Avoidance
B. Acceptance
C. Mitigation
D. Transference
167. You are a member of the committee, which is appointed to oversee the awarding of an important contract, in your company. In this context, all of the following can be treated as conflict of interest situations, EXCEPT:
A. Your friend bids for the contract and you inform the committee and the project sponsor about it.
B. Your relative bids for the contract and you do not inform the project sponsor about it.
C. Your close friend bids for the contract and you refrain from participating in the contract awarding decision process without informing your sponsor.
D. Your friend bids for the contract and you make sure that the contract is awarded to him.
168. Another name for a compromise is a:
A. Win-win solution
B. Win-lose solution
C. Lose-lose solution
D. Standoff solution
169. Tom is the manager of a software project. His client has agreed on a Project Scope Statement but he comes up with features that he would like to add into the product. What is the BEST description of his project’s current situation?
A. Gold plating
B. Schedule variance
C. Scope creep
D. Alternatives analysis
170. You are working on an industrial design project. The project is complete. You are now meeting with your team to update the organizational process assets to help future project managers with their projects. This is BEST described as:
A. Lessons learned
B. Project records
C. Work performance information
D. Project management information system (PMIS)
171. Eric is a project manager for an IT project and using an Ishikawa diagram to figure out what could cause potential risks on his project. Which process is he doing?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
172. You are the project manager for a bridge construction project. Which of the following is the BEST metric to use for forecasting?
A. EV and AC
B. ETC and VAC
C. SPI and CPI
D. SV and CV
173. Where do you keep information about low priority risks?
A. Triggers
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Qualitative analysis documents
D. The watchlist
174. Schedule variance can be determined by:
A. BCWP - ACWP
B. ACWP - BCWP
C. EAC - ACWP
D. BCWP - BCWS
175. The following document lessons learned
E. The Project manager and the project team
A. The sponsor
B. The Project manager
C. The key stakeholders
176. When is the BEST time to have project kickoff meetings?
A. At the beginning of the project
B. When each deliverable is created
C. At the start of each phase
D. When the Communications Management plan is approved
177. Which of the following processes is in the Initiating process group?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
178. You are a project manager on a software project. You have just prepared an RFP to send around to software testing companies. Your friend calls you who own a software testing company. He wants to bid on your project. You know he’s done good work before, and it may be a good fit for your company. How do you proceed?
A. You disclose the conflict of interest to your company, and disqualify your friend’s company
B. You disclose the conflict of interest to your company, and make the selection based on objective criteria
C. You disclose the conflict of interest to your company, and provide your friend with information that the other bidders don’t have so that he has a better chance of winning the contract
D. You do not disclose the conflict of interest, and give your friend the bid
179. What is a risk owner?
A. The project team members
B. The project manager
C. The person who is responsible for the response plan for the risk.
D. The person who makes a risk happen.
180. Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
A. Cost
B. Resources
C. Scope
D. Procurements
181. You are managing a project with an EV of $30,000, PV of $24,000 and AC of $22,000. How would you BEST describe this project?
A. The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget
B. The project is behind schedule and within its budget
C. The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget
D. The project is behind schedule and over its budget
182. You are managing a project with AC = $25,000, ETC = $50,000, BAC = $45,000 and EAC = $70,000. Your sponsor asks you to forecast how much money you expect to spend on the remainder of the project. Which is the BEST estimate to use for this forecast?
A. $50,000
B. $25,000
C. $5,000
D. $75,000
183. A project manager discovers that a project problem has occurred. The problem was never discussed during risk planning activities. What is the BEST response?
A. Stop all project activity and approach senior management for advice
B. Use the contingency reserve to cover the cost of risk
C. Use the management reserve to cover the cost of risk
D. Just accept that there is a problem that the team did not plan for
184. A notice sent to a sub-contractor about the contract is an example of which kind of communication?
A. Formal Written
B. Formal Verbal
C. Informal Verbal
D. Informal Written
185. A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called:
A. Negotiation
B. Arbitration
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
186. A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope definition is called:
A. Scope Definition Matrix
B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix
187. Which of the following is often overlooked in achieving effective communication?
A. speaking clearly
B. listening
C. interpreting
D. maintaining eye contact
188. Appraisal costs that are used to assess the quality include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Testing
B. Destructive testing loss
C. Inspections
D. Training
189. The most precise or accurate estimate for determining project costs is the _____ estimate.
A. Definitive.
B. Analogy
C. Budget
D. Rough Order of Magnitude
190. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called __________.
A. Project plan
B. Statement of work
C. Pareto analysis
D. Code of accounts
191. For communication to occur there must be:
A. Two or more entities involved
B. Transmission of information
C. Medium of exchange
D. All of the above
192. ROI (Return on Investment) analysis includes all, except
A. Sunk Cost
B. Payback period
C. Internal rate of Return (IRR)
D. Net Present Value (NPV)
193. An advertiser who uses a movie or sports star to endorse a product is trying to use power.
A. Legitimate
B. Reward
C. Influential
D. Referent
194. Overlapping activities on a project, such as design and construction, is referred to as:
A. Fast tracking
B. Compression
C. Parallel management
D. Process improvement
195. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications.
B. The cost of quality is mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the product.
C. Quality control programs should be implemented when the cost of quality are deemed affordable by management.
D. A and C
196. You need to determine when to release resources from your project. Which part of the staffing management plan will be most useful for this?
A. RACI Chart
B. Recognition and rewards
C. Training needs
D. Resource histogram
197. A line manager provides you with three estimates for his activity in your PERT network. His estimates are 2 weeks optimistically, 4 weeks most likely, and 12 weeks pessimistically. The expected time which would appear on the chart would be:
A. 4 weeks
B. 5 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 7 weeks
198. The first step in building a PERT/CPM network is to:
A. Create a flow chart
B. Determine the critical path
C. Show task relationships
D. Create a work breakdown structure
199. Resource leveling will often affect the project by making it:
A. Shorter
B. Longer
C. More responsive to customer needs
D. A and C
200. _____________ is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
Answer Key
1. C
|
11.A
|
21.A
|
31.D
|
41.C
|
51.D
|
61.A
|
71.A
|
81.B
|
91.D
|
2. A
|
12.D
|
22.B
|
32.B
|
42.C
|
52.C
|
62.D
|
72.D
|
82.A
|
92.B
|
3. D
|
13.B
|
23.C
|
33.C
|
43.A
|
53.D
|
63.A
|
73.C
|
83.D
|
93.A
|
4. A
|
14.D
|
24.B
|
34.A
|
44.C
|
54.D
|
64.A
|
74.C
|
84.D
|
94.B
|
5. B
|
15.D
|
25.D
|
35.B
|
45.B
|
55.A
|
65.D
|
75.B
|
85.A
|
95.C
|
6. D
|
16.B
|
26.A
|
36.A
|
46.C
|
56.B
|
66.B
|
76.B
|
86.B
|
96.D
|
7. B
|
17.A
|
27.B
|
37.B
|
47.A
|
57.C
|
67.C
|
77.A
|
87.B
|
97.B
|
8. D
|
18.A
|
28.B
|
38.C
|
48.D
|
58.C
|
68.B
|
78.D
|
88.B
|
98.C
|
9. B
|
19.D
|
29.D
|
39.D
|
49.B
|
59.B
|
69. A
|
79.B
|
89.B
|
99.C
|
10.C
|
20.D
|
30.B
|
40.C
|
50.B
|
60.B
|
70.D
|
80.C
|
90.B
|
100.A
|
101C
|
111.B
|
121.D
|
131.B
|
141.B
|
151.D
|
161.A
|
171.A
|
181.A
|
191.D
|
102.C
|
112.C
|
122.C
|
132.C
|
142.A
|
152.B
|
162.C
|
172.B
|
182.A
|
192.A
|
103.B
|
113.A
|
123.D
|
133.B
|
143. B
|
153.B
|
163.B
|
173.D
|
183.C
|
193.D
|
104.D
|
114.B
|
124.B
|
134.A
|
144.D
|
154.B
|
164.C
|
174.D
|
184.A
|
194.A
|
105.A
|
115.B
|
125.D
|
135.A
|
145.B
|
155.D
|
165.B
|
175.A
|
185.B
|
195.A
|
106.B
|
116.A
|
126.C
|
136.A
|
146.C
|
156.A
|
166.D
|
176.C
|
186.B
|
196.D
|
107.D
|
117.B
|
127.C
|
137.C
|
147.B
|
157.C
|
167.A
|
177.A
|
187.B
|
197.B
|
108.A
|
118.C
|
128.A
|
138.B
|
148.A
|
158.C
|
168.C
|
178.B
|
188.D
|
198.D
|
109.D
|
119.B
|
129.B
|
139.C
|
149.A
|
159.B
|
169.C
|
179.C
|
189.A
|
199.B
|
110A
|
120.C
|
130.A
|
140.A
|
150.D
|
160.C
|
170.A
|
180.D
|
190.B
|
200.B
|
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